Do Words Mean What They Mean? | ||
| See Also: Plain English Authority | by Jeff Himmel One of the most memorable moments in political and legal history had to be when our President, testifying before a grand jury, was asked a question and said that the answer depended on what one's definition of "is" is. Mr. Clinton isn't the first to use this approach. People have been using it on the Bible for years. In order to defend their beliefs, folks must sometimes ignore or deny the obvious meaning of simple words in Scripture. Consider a few examples. God is "not wishing for any to perish but for all to come to repentance" (2 Peter 3:9). He "desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth" (1 Timothy 2:4). If "all" means "all", then it is God's will that everyone be saved. But He says plainly that not everyone will be (Matthew 7:13). How is it, then, that some folks insist that a man's salvation is entirely a matter of God's will, and none of his own? Will God violate His own will? If God wants to save everyone and yet will not, how can we reach any other conclusion but that He gives us the choice of accepting or rejecting His grace? Jesus said, "He who believes and is baptized will be saved" (Mark 16:16). Peter said, "Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins" (Acts 2:38). If "and" means "and" in Mark 16:16, then both belief and baptism are prerequisite to being saved. One without the other won't do. If "and" means "and" in Acts 2:38, then forgiveness of sins comes through both repentance and baptism. One without the other won't do. How is it, then, that some folks make baptism optional? I wonder if they'd be satisfied with that way of thinking if they ordered a burger and fries at McDonald's, but only got the burger. Jesus said, "Whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery" (Matthew 19:9, NKJV). If "whoever" means "whoever" ("everyone" in Matthew 5:32), then any person who marries in violation of this teaching is guilty of adultery. How is it, then, that some insist that there are people (non-Christians, for instance) to whom this passage doesn't apply? Paul wrote, "Now the works of the flesh . . . are: adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lewdness, idolatry, sorcery, hatred, contentions, jealousies, outbursts of wrath, selfish ambitions, dissensions, heresies, envy, murders, drunkenness, revelries, and the like; . . . those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God" (Galatians 5:19-21; cf. 1 Corinthians 6:9-10). If "will not" means "will not" in this verse, then such things will keep us out of heaven. How is it, then, that some people defend their "right" as Christians to practice some of them?
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